Selling inherited property

Buyer beware.
The only probable and possible reason why her name appeared and was included in [the contracts to sell dated November 18, 1985 and March 10, 1986 and finally, the deed of absolute sale dated November 16, 1987] as buyer is because as observed by the Court, she being a scheming and exploitive woman, she has taken advantage of the goodness of Jambrich who at that time was still bewitched by her beauty, sweetness, and good attitude shown by her to him since he could still very well provide for everything she needs, he being earning (sic) much yet at that time. In fact, as observed by this Court, the acquisition of these properties under litigation was at the time when their relationship was still going smoothly and harmoniously

Hard to believe it took the Supreme Court to figure this out. It must take years to get a case heard there if cases like this get escalated there.

 

@Rye83 Was wrong. There should be a rating for that. Not a red color. Maybe orange. And just for @Rye83.

 

Sorry, there's a character limit for a post. I can't fit all that in. I'm also afraid I might overload the database.

 

I think you may have hit the nail upon the head. Realistically, a foreigner is very unlikely to legally inherit sole ownership or even a majority interest in any property, irregardless of the provisions of a spouse's will.
The deceased would need to have no living children, parents, grandparents, siblings or descendants of the above for that to happen. The co-heirs might exert varying degrees of pressure to cash out. And the foreigner would be prohibited by law from buying them out himself.
So the truism that a foreigner "must" sell inherited land may not be legally true, just a very common situation.